Have added Dannys latest telephone conversation with Matt to the original post.
Matt does not agree with our right to not doing something at our own expense. Surely then there is a legal authority proving his belief? Or maybe statute can be made up on the spot?
There is a long pause when asked if the “implied right of access” to your property is removed and …!
EDIT: I wrote this in reply to a comment but will add it here so that it isn’t missed:
For anyone unfamiliar with “implied right of access”, I understand it as this:- your home and surrounding land is your PRIVATE PROPERTY and anyone wanting to enter your private property needs your consent to do so. No consent equates to trespass. In order for mail, milk, parcels etc to be delivered and for tradesmen, friends and family to visit you at your home, for CONVENIENCE there is an IMPLIED right of access, otherwise everyone would need special permission.
You could if you wish create a notice granting access to everyone except – and then list of those to whom access is denied; religious canvassers, voter registration canvassers, sales people, utility canvassers etc.
I don’t know of any specific laws or judgements regarding implied right of access (EDIT: Armstrong v. Sheppard and Short Ltd  2 Q.B. per Lord Evershed M.R.), if anyone reading does I would be very grateful if you would let me know. Also, what is the process for bringing a prosecution for trespass? Do YOU set the amount required for damages?